Mohammad's followers drinking and smearing his ablution water...

Bukhari Volume 1, Book 4, Number 187: 

Narrated Abu Juhaifa:
Allah's Apostle came to us at noon and water for ablution was brought to him. After he had performed ablution, the remaining water was taken by the people and they started smearing their bodies with it (as a blessed thing). The Prophet offered two Rakat of the Zuhr prayer and then two Rakat of the 'Asr prayer while an 'Anza (spear-headed stick) was there (as a Sutra) in front of him. Abu Musa said: The Prophet asked for a tumbler containing water and washed both his hands and face in it and then threw a mouthful of water in the tumbler and said to both of us (Abu Musa and Bilal), "Drink from the tumbler and pour some of its water on your faces and chests." 

Ablution is the removal of any sexual residue, blood or excrement on a person. Here we see Mohammad's followers rubbing themselves with that water as a blessed thing, and Mohammad, who after washing his hands, and rinsing his mouth, asking his followers to drink from it. We also know that Mohammad had many semen stains, and would have to continually wash himself of those stains... http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/05/mohammad-had-lots-of-semen-on-his.html

1) Why would his followers think of smearing their bodies with his leftover ablution water find it heavenly?
a) Did they think it was a blessing?
b) How could they be blessed by his cleaned up semen stains?
c) Did Allah find Mohammad's cleaned semen or blood stains to be a blessing?
d) Should all Muslims start smearing themselves in the ablution water of Mohammad's direct descendants (syeeds) in order to be like their ancestors smearing their bodies with Mohammad's remaining ablution water and regurgitated rinsing water?
e) Were his followers that fanatical that they would do anything for Mohammad, including blowing themselves up for a chance at paradise to drink from the rivers of wine (which are illegal on earth but not haram in heaven)
i) Think about it, why are the very same vices that would take you to hell allowed in heaven? Is this an allegory of Mohammad that maybe his heaven is really a hell?

2) Why did Mohammad order his companions to drink his regurgitated water?
a) Did he think he was being prophet-like in ordering his followers to drink up the remainder of what they cleaned themselves with?
b) Did he think like he was being like other prophets?
i) For instance, Jesus washed the feet of others. John 13:1-20. The point was that Jesus was to serve his followers. Here Mohammad, who claims to be like all other prophets before him, does the complete opposite by forcing his followers to swallow what he spit out.
ii) Or, was it because he thought this was his version of the Last Supper, where Jesus broke bread in an allegorical way saying it is his body? Matthew 26: 17-46 (NOTE - Jesus did not actually have people eat his body, or drink the remnants of what he washed himself with, but broke bread as a symbolism that his blood was being spilt when he died on the cross for the sins of mankind) (whether you believe this or not is irrlevant, take the point that he did NOT make his followers actually eat drink his blood, eat his body, or drink and smear his ablution water)
iii) No, because the point of all Muslims was to be a slave to Mohammad, and obey all that he said no matter the consequences of wreaking havoc on others.

3) What next?
a) Mohammad proscribing cures of Camel Urine and flies?
b) Oh wait, he already did that:
i) http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/07/dr-mohammad-part-ii.html
ii) http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/07/dr-mohammad.html

Mohammad the witch doctor?

Sahih Al-Bukhari: Volume 7, Book 65, Number 356:

Narrated Sad:
Allah's Apostle said, "He who eats seven 'Ajwa dates every morning, will not be affected by poison or magic on the day he eats them."

1) Did Mohammad eat these seven 'Ajwa dates when Magic was worked on Allah's Apostle so that he began to imagine that he had done something although he had not? http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/05/volume-7-book-71-number-661-narrated.html

a) Did these magic spells only apply to sexual relations with his wife?
Bukhari: Volume 8, Book 73, Number 89:
Narrated 'Aisha:
The Prophet continued for such-and-such period imagining that he has slept (had sexual relations) with his wives, and in fact he did not. One day he said, to me, "O 'Aisha! Allah has instructed me regarding a matter about which I had asked Him. There came to me two men, one of them sat near my feet and the other near my head. The one near my feet, asked the one near my head (pointing at me), 'What is wrong with this man? The latter replied, 'He is under the effect of magic.' ……

b) Or was it because Mohammad himself was Mohammad using magic spells as an excuse to about how he infact was impotent? "One day he said, to me, "O 'Aisha! Allah has instructed me regarding a matter about which I had asked Him." Bukhari: Volume 8, Book 73, Number 89
c) Why didnt the profit have any other children after Khadija, except for Ibrahim from his slave girl, Mary the Copt?

2) Do all Muslims eat seven 'Ajwa dates every morning?
3) Why didn't Mohammad eat 7 Ajwa dates as a cure for the magic curses Labad put on him?
4) How did Mohammad know about magic spells?
a) Did Mohammad dabble in the black arts?

Tabari VI:66
"A man came to the Prophet and said, 'Show me the seal which is between your shoulders, and if you lie under any enchantment [a demonic curse or spell] I will cure you, for I am the best enchanter [a witch practicing black magic] of the Arabs.' 'Do you wish me to show you a sign.' asked the Prophet. 'Yes. Summon that cluster.' So the Prophet looked at a cluster of dates hanging from a palm and summoned it, and began to snap his fingers until it stood before him. Then the man said, 'Tell it to go back.' and it went back. The enchanter said, 'I have never seen a greater magician than I have seen today.'"
b) Does this mean that the enchanter was right to call Mohammad a magician, and the Meccans were also right when they called him a demon possessed sorcerer? (038.004 YUSUFALI: So they wonder that a Warner has come to them from among themselves! and the Unbelievers say, "This is a sorcerer telling lies! "
c) Maybe Mohammad was right about Ajwa dates - he himself is a good magician!

6) Could Mohammad also pull a rabbit out of his turban?
a) Was Mohammad the first person to entertain children at birthday parties with magic tricks?
b) Does this mean that clowns at magic shows are halal?
c) Does this mean that being a sorceror is a noble profession (like the noble Quran)?
d) Does this mean that Muslims should also start celebrating Halloween as a religious holiday in commemoration of Mohammad's excellent wizardry?

The Prophet said, "Fever is from the heat of Hell, so abate fever with water."

Sahih Bukhari 7:71:621
The Prophet said, "Fever is from the heat of Hell, so abate fever with water."

See also:Sahih Bukhari 7:71:619, Sahih Bukhari 7:71:620, Sahih Bukhari 7:71:622

Once again, Mohammad never ceases to amaze the world of modern science. After all, it is Allah who ensured the predestination of everyone's actions and sayings - as such, it was Allah, who made sure to give his first and final prophet the ability to come up with such wisdom.

However, what is sad is that Mohammad could have been believed in 7th century Arabia only because their was no ready access to water, and for desert dwellers, water was probably worth its in weight in oil.

But, to have Muslims pass off that every word Mohammad spoke as being divine inspiration, timeless, eternal and wise is utterly negligent bordering reckless.

If that is the case, every Muslim should cure their fever with water. Otherwise, they would be doing Mohammad a disservice by proving him wrong.

Prophet Muhammad said Muslim Women are deficient in intelligence and religion!

Volume 1, Book 6, Number 301:

Narrated Abu Said Al-Khudri:

Once Allah's Apostle went out to the Musalla (to offer the prayer) o 'Id-al-Adha or Al-Fitr prayer. Then he passed by the women and said, "O women! Give alms, as I have seen that the majority of the dwellers of Hell-fire were you (women)." They asked, "Why is it so, O Allah's Apostle ?" He replied, "You curse frequently and are ungrateful to your husbands. I have not seen anyone more deficient in intelligence and religion than you. A cautious sensible man could be led astray by some of you." The women asked, "O Allah's Apostle! What is deficient in our intelligence and religion?" He said, "Is not the evidence of two women equal to the witness of one man?" They replied in the affirmative. He said, "This is the deficiency in her intelligence. Isn't it true that a woman can neither pray nor fast during her menses?" The women replied in the affirmative. He said, "This is the deficiency in her religion." 

Deficiency in Intelligence:

The above passage states that women are deficient in intelligence because the evidence of two women are equal to one man. The reason for this statement is that during one of Mohammad's so-called divine revelations, Allah told Mohammad that the evidence of two women equal to the witness of one man. Allah's reasoning is that women are mentaly deficient compared to men.

Quran 002.282YUSUFALI: O ye who believe! When ye deal with each other, in transactions involving future obligations in a fixed period of time, reduce them to writing Let a scribe write down faithfully as between the parties: let not the scribe refuse to write: as Allah Has taught him, so let him write. Let him who incurs the liability dictate, but let him fear His Lord Allah, and not diminish aught of what he owes. If they party liable is mentally deficient, or weak, or unable Himself to dictate, Let his guardian dictate faithfully, and get two witnesses, out of your own men, and if there are not two men, then a man and two women, such as ye choose, for witnesses, so that if one of them errs, the other can remind her.

1) Mohammad created the above rule - Women are not intellectually inferior according to the torah or bible.
a) Is Mohammad's reasoning tautological? (He created the rule that women are intellectually inferior, and uses that rule to prove women are intellectually inferior?b) Could Mohammad have been right with those women considering how easily they accepted Mohammad's word?
i) Or did those women superficially accept Mohammad's assertions considering that Allah made Mohammad succeed through terror, Mohammad ordered the assassination of many people who stood up against him, and committed genocide against the Qurayza Jews of Yathrub (present day Medina)?
2) Does that mean Pakistan had a mentally deficient president in Benezir Bhutto for many years, as opposed to other countries?
a) How do Pakistanis feel that they had elected someone that was deficient in intelligence?
b) Does this mean that Pakistani males were so deficient in intelligence (less than half a man's) that they needed to elect a woman whose intelligence is half that of a normal man?
3) How do modern day Muslim women feel knowing they have only have the intelligence of a man's?
a) Or are Muslim women too dumb to realize the connotations of the above, proving Mohammad right that Muslim women are truly deficient in intelligence?

Deficiency in Religion:

The above passage states that women are deficient in religion because women "can neither pray nor fast during her menses"

1) Does this mean that Mohammad's entire religion is one based on bodily actions?
2) Does this mean that following Mohammad's religion is about prayer and fasting as opposed to any relationship with God?
3) How can a woman be deficient in religion when it was Mohammad who created the rules of his religion, and woman are forced to obey?
a) Does this mean that Mohammad created rules that purposely hinder women from his religion?
b) Did Mohammad dislike women?
c) Did Mohammad view women as merely sex toys, seeing how he had over 9 wives and countless concubines?
4) How would modern day Muslims feel if Mohammad was still alive and wanted their hand in marriage (or that of their daughters'? (Especially considering his womanizing, and love of making love):

Bukhari, Book 008, Number 3450:
Anas (Allah be pleased with him) reported that Allah's Apostle (may peace be upon him) had nine wives. They (all the wives) used to gather every night in the house of one where he had to come (and stay that night).

Mohammad enjoyed touching Aisha during prayer

Volume 2, Book 22, Number 300:

Narrated Aisha:
I used to stretch my legs towards the Qibla of the Prophet while he was praying; whenever he prostrated he touched me, and I would withdraw my legs, and whenever he stood up, I would restretch my legs.

When prostrating, a person bends down on his knees, and stretches his arms out in front of them.

1) Why did Mohammad reach out to touch Aisha?
a) Was he trying to reach out and touch someone?
b) Or was he trying to touch his child bride, the one where he would get the divine inspiration from while he was making love to her? http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/04/mohammed-would-get-divine-inspiration.html

2) Why did Aisha feel the need to put her legs in front of Mohammad as he prayed?
a) Did the mother of all Muslims like to interrupt her husband?
b) Why couldnt she look for another place to stretch out her legs?
c) Was she seeking the prophet's love and affection?
d) Was she resorting to one of her tactics induced by jealousy of Mohammad's womanizing ways? http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/06/aisha-jealous-of-mohammed-womanizer.html

3) Why did Bukhari include this hadith?
a) Was it to provide an example for male Muslims to look to touch the legs of their wives while praying?
i) Is this consistent with Allah who promises 70 virgins in heaven for martyrs?
ii) As such, is Bukhari trying to hammer home the point that sexual touching during prayer is only fitting for Muslims?
b) Or was Bukhari providing an example for wives to stretch their legs out like the mother of all Muslims to bother their husbands during prostration?

Mohammad caught the fashion bug - gold rings, silk clothes and yellow garments are forbidden

Sahih Muslim

Chapter 3: IT IS NOT PERMISSIBLE FOR A MAN TO WEAR CLOTHES OF YELLOW COLOUR
Book 024, Number 5178: 
'Ali b. Abu Talib reported: Allah's Meisenger (may peace be upon him) forbade me to use gold rings. to wear silk clothes and to recite the Qur'an in ruku' and sajda (prostration), and to wear yellow garments.

1) Why did Allah's apostle forbid gold rings?
a) What religious reason existed for this?
b) Was it because Mohammad could not afforda gold ring at the time he bought a silver ring which was engraved "Muhammad, Messenger of Allah"


Sahih Muslim "Book 024, Number 5212: 
Ibn Umar reported that Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) had made for himself a ring of silver, and he (wore it in his finger). then it was in Abu Bakr's finger. then it was in'Umar's finger. then it was in 'Uthman's finger. until it fell into the well of Aris and it had these words engraved upon it (Muhammad, Messenger of Allah). Ibn Numair narrated it with a slight variation of words."

c) As such, would he be jealous of a person having a more valuable ring than his ring of prophethood?
d) Or was it because gold is yellow, showing just how ridiculous Mohammad's fashion criteria is?

2) Why did Mohammad forbid silk clothes
a) Was it because it was smooth against the skin?
b) Or was that his "followers" who were bad tempered like Makhrama bully Mohammad into giving silk?

Volume 4, Book 53, Number 356: 
Narrated 'Abdullah bin Abu Mulaika:
Some silken cloaks with golden buttons were presented to the Prophet. He distributed them amongst his companions and kept one for Makhrama, bin Naufal. Later on Makhrama came along with his son Al-Miswar bin Makhrama, and stood up at the gate and said (to his son). "Call him (i.e. the Prophet) to me." The Prophet heard his voice, took a silken cloak and brought it to him, placing those golden buttons in front of him saying, "O Abu-al-Miswar! I have kept this aside for you! O Abu-al Miswar! I have kept this aside for you!" Makhrama was a bad-tempered man.

c) Why was Mohammad handing out silk cloaks when silk clothes are forbidden?
d) Was it because Mohammad abrogated his deeds?
e) Or was it because Mohammad made up his scriptue as he went along?

3) Why did Mohammad forbid yellow clothes?
a) Was it because it reminded him of the yellow sands of Arabia?
b) Wouldnt forbidding black in the heat of the dessert been more appropriate, as opposed to yellow?
c) Did Sahih Muslim include this to show how ridiculous Mohammad's rules are?
and yellow garments?

Satan looks like Nabtal, a sturdy black man with long flowing hair, inflamed eyes, and dark ruddy cheeks!

Ishaq:243 "I have heard the Apostle say: 'Whoever wants to see Satan should look at Nabtal.' He was a sturdy black man with long flowing hair, inflamed eyes, and dark ruddy cheeks. He used to come and talk with the Prophet and listen to him. He would carry what he had said to the hypocrites. Nabtal said, 'Muhammad is all ears. If anyone tells him something he believes it.' Allah sent down concerning him: 'To those who annoy the Prophet and say that he is all ears, say, 'Good ears for you.' For those who annoy the Apostle there is a painful punishment." [Qur'an 9:61] "Gabriel came to Muhammad and said, 'If a black man comes to you, his heart is more gross than a donkey's.'"

1) Why would Satan look like a human?
a) Why would he look like a black man?
b) Is it because black people are inferior to the rest of mankind?
http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/04/mohammad-racist.html
i) After all, Noah prayed that the sons of Ham would become black so they could be enslaved by the sons of Ham (Arabs)

"Shem, the son of Noah was the father of the Arabs, the Persians, and the Greeks; Ham was the father of the Black Africans; and Japheth was the father of the Turks and of Gog and Magog who were cousins of the Turks. Noah prayed that the prophets and apostles would be descended from Shem and kings would be from Japheth. He prayed that the African's color would change so that their descendants would be slaves to the Arabs and Turks." Tabari II:11

c) Does Bob Marley look like Satan?

2) Why would Nabtal say Mohammad is all ears?
a) Is it because Mohammad was very gullible?
b) Why would Ishaq write about how Mohammad was insulted by a black man, whose ancestor Noah prayed that his colour would be black only so he could be a slave?
c) Why was a slave so easily making fun of Mohammad?
d) Why did Mohammad continue talking to Nabtal if he knew Nabtal would carry off this information to the Arab hypocrites?
e) Does this mean that Mohammad was the object of ridicule for Arabs and a blackman who looked like Satan?

3) Why was a quran Surah revealed to Mohammad just for the purpose of refuting Nabtal?
a) If the Quran is timeless, why was it necessary to include that Surah?

Answers to question 3:

"Gabriel came to Muhammad and said, 'If a black man comes to you, his heart is more gross than a donkey's." Ishaq 243

Therefore, the moral of the story is that a black man's heart is more gross than a donkey's. Everything makes sense now!

a) Should MUslims be afraid if Obama Barrack wins the US presidential elction, especially since Mohammad's timeless words prove that a black man's heart is grosser than a donkey's?
b) How do black Muslims feel knowing their prophet told them their heart is grosser than a donkey's?
c) Why do long haired blacks look like Satan?
d) Does this mean that Allah, the supreme being created black people in the image of Satan, especially since black people were created after Satan?
e) Does this mean that Mohammad was the first segregationist, as obviously, good and moral people would want to separate themselves from evil Satan look-a-likes, namely black people?
f) Is this why Louis Farrakhan wants blacks to sparate from whites, because as a true muslim, he knows that black people have hearts as gross as a donkey's andhe wants to do the worlda favour?
g) Were the KKK following Holy Mohammad's (may peace be unto him) example by separating themselves from black people as well?

Allah works to make sure Mohammad's sexual desires are always met

Bukhari - Volume 6, Book 60, Number 311: 

Narrated Aisha:
I used to look down upon those ladies who had given themselves to Allah's Apostle and I used to say, "Can a lady give herself (to a man)?" But when Allah revealed: "You (O Muhammad) can postpone (the turn of) whom you will of them (your wives), and you may receive any of them whom you will; and there is no blame on you if you invite one whose turn you have set aside (temporarily).' (33.51) I said (to the Prophet), "I feel that your Lord hastens in fulfilling your wishes and desires."

It is apparent that the mother of all muslims, Aisha, was jealous of Mohammad's phialndering ways. Why else would she look down on women freely giving themselves up to her husband? Afterall, this would only mean more competition for her, a woman in er mid-teenage years, sharing a 60 year old man with scores of other women. http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/06/aisha-jealous-of-mohammed-womanizer.html

Once again, Allah, in his timeless masterpiece, the quran, gave another situational scripture to specifically allow Mohammad to do whatever he wants with his wives and concubines, whenever he wants.

1) Did Sahih Bukhari include this explanation of the quran to show that Mohammad, the philanderer, could do whatever he wanted because he in fact, was Allah, in the religion of Islam?
2) If Mohammad is the perfect example for all Muslims, does this mean that men in today's world could twist the Quran however they want in order for them to fulfill their own sexual and carnal desires? (Please see this example - http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/africa/7547148.stm)
3) If Allah is the all-knowing creator of the universe, trying to create the perfect book, and taking care of the universe, why would Allah specifically hand down a quran surrah saying that Mohammad has no blame for sleeping around with any of his wives, regardless of whose turn it was, and thus, not treating his wives equally?
a) Could the reason be that Mohammad was Allah, that Mohammad knew that his actions were hypocritical, and thus came up with a convenient surah to cover up his own actions?
b) Did Bukhari include this verse to illustrate how quran surahs were ordained - as convenient outclauses for Mohammad to get out of quandries created by his own hypocritical standards?

Finally, Aisha, the mother of all Muslims, said "I feel that your Lord hastens in fulfilling your wishes and desires."

1) Why did she say "Your Lord" instead of "Our Lord"?
a) Was it because she implicitly did not want to have anything to do with a deity that allows her husband to have sexual relations with whom ever, and whenever he wants, but not allow her the same rights of philandering as him?
2) Was it because she herself believed that Allah was actually Mohammad, coming up with convenient surahs to allow him to do whatever he wanted?
3) Did Bukhari include this hadith to show that the mother of all muslims was not convinced of Mohammad's prophethood?
a) That Muslims during Mohammad's day believed his actions to be completely self-serving, and that a timeless quran would not be so focused on the justifications of the bedroom antics of its lone prophet?

Allah's apostle misunderstanding and bastardizing a Christian parable

Sahih Bukhari; Volume 8, Book 76, Number 565: 

Narrated Abu Said Al-Khudri:
Allah's Apostle said, "When the people of Paradise have entered Paradise, and the people of the Fire have entered the Fire, Allah will say. 'Take out (of the Fire) whoever has got faith equal to a mustard seed in his heart.' They will come out, and by that time they would have burnt and became like coal, and then they will be thrown into the river of Al-Hayyat (life) and they will spring up just as a seed grows on the bank of a rainwater stream." The Prophet said, "Don't you see that the germinating seed comes out yellow and twisted?"

Bible (or the Injil, which Muslims are forbidden to read because it makes more logical sense than the Quran)

And he said, Whereunto shall we liken the kingdom of God? or with what comparison shall we compare it?It is like a grain of mustard seed, which, when it is sown in the earth, is less than all the seeds that be in the earth:But when it is sown, it groweth up, and becometh greater than all herbs, and shooteth out great branches; so that the fowls of the air may lodge under the shadow of it.– Mark 4:30–2

The meaning of the mustard seed in the Christian context:

The parable compares the Kingdom of Heaven to a mustard seed which the parable says is the least among seed, yet grows to become a huge mustard plant that provides shelter for many birds.

In other words, something small and insignificant becomes something powerful.

The meaning of the mustard seed in the Muslim context:

Even having a little faith means you will eventually get out of the hell fire. However, you will become black and charred.

(Note that this logic is faulty because Muslims believe that you must first go to hell and pay for your sins before you go to heaven. You stay in hell in proportion to all the good things you did. Thus, if you were bad 1% of the time, you are in hell 1% of your after life. But, if the after life is infinite, that would mean you will spend the full after life in hell. --> 0.01/infinity = infinity) )

Further, Mohammad bastardizes the above parable by saying that having faith like a mustard seed makes one yellow and twisted, even if they go to heaven. As such, he is saying a person should have more faith than a mustard seed, and Mohammad makes an implicit assumption that having faith like a mustard seed is really pathetic.

1) Why did Bukhari include this hadith?
a) Was it to show that Mohammad, the illiterate prophet, did not really read the injil (bible) in coming up with his own parables?
b) Was it to show that Mohammad never read the injil (bible) to begin with, and as such, was not capable of making any ethical or philosophical judgments against Christianity, or any religion for that matter?
c) Or was it because by the time Bukhari wrote this, Muslims rulers commissioned him to write things that would demonize Christians, as the Christian doctrine is clearly far superior and logical coherent as compared to the Muslim docrtine, and any attack on Islam the religion could destabilize the political underinnings of keeping Muslim rulers as the ruling class?
2) Why did Mohammad not understand the biblical context of the mustard seed?
a) If Mohammad came to reassert the word of previous prophets and the messiah, why did he have to bastardize what they said?
b) Did Mohammad forbid the reading of the Injil (bible) to prevent muslims from finding out just how inept his own religious and theological background was?

Dr. Mohammad? If a fly falls on your food, should you smear your food with both wings?

Volume 4, Book 54, Number 537: 

Narrated Abu Huraira:
The Prophet said "If a house fly falls in the drink of anyone of you, he should dip it (in the drink), for one of its wings has a disease and the other has the cure for the disease."
1) Where did Mohammad learn about diseases?
2) Did Mohammad learn this at the Kabba?
3) If you dip the fly in the drink, how will you know that the wing with the cure will save you as opposed to the wing with the disease?
4) If a fly falls on your food, should you smear your food with both wings?
5) Is Mohammad a licensed practitioner?