Friday, March 9, 2018

During the Ramadan fast, it is OK to suck your young wife's tongue, provided you are an old man

Related image
Book 13, Number 2380: 

Narrated Aisha, Ummul Mu'minin:
The Prophet (peace_be_upon_him) used to kiss her and suck her tongue when he was fasting.

Book 13, Number 2381: 
Narrated AbuHurayrah:
A man asked the Prophet (peace_be_upon_him) whether one who was fasting could embrace (his wife) and he gave him permission; but when another man came to him, and asked him, he forbade him. The one to whom he gave permission was an old man and the one whom he forbade was a youth. 

Book 13, Number 2390: 
Narrated AbuHurayrah:
The Prophet (peace_be_upon_him) said: If anyone breaks his fast one day in Ramadan without a concession granted to him by Allah, a perpetual fast will not atone for it.

From the above three hadiths, one quickly becomes aware that Mohammad (may peace be upon him) used to love sucking on Aisha's tongue while he was fasting. In fact, he just liked to suck, period! (http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/07/mohammad-original-kfc-colonel.html)

Ignoring the sexual aspects of the Holy Prophet Mohammad (May peace be upon him) breaking his own fasting rules to suck on a little girl's tongue - which has already been discussed ad nauseum throughout the blog, the author wants to show that a young Muslim man is being discriminated by Mohammad in favour of older Muslim men.

1) Why does Mohammad (SAW) allow old Muslim men to break the fast and engage in sexual activities with their wives but not allow young men to do the same?
a) Is it because Mohammad (SAW) himself was old?
b) Is it because he viewed young men as competition - (How so, he was Allah's Apostle - why else would he forbid Muslims from marrying any of his widows after his death?)
c) Is it because old people really would not care as much about his rules, especially since they had been experienced in life?

2) If you break a the Ramadan fast for one day, Muslim Male, without a concession granted to him by Allah, a perpetual fast will not atone for it.
a) Allah is the most merciful, most kind.
b) Allah will never forgive you, even if you made a perpetual fast, for breaking the Ramadan fast for one day.
c) Allah is the most merciful, most kind.
d) Allah's Apostle broke the Ramadan fast by invading Makka during Ramadan.
e) Will Allah forgive Mohammad for breaking the Ramadan fast by invading Makka during Ramadan?
f) Will Allah forgive you for sucking on your wife (or wives) tongue(s) during Ramadan?
g) Allah will never forgive you, even if you made a perpetual fast, for breaking the Ramadan fast for one day.
h) Allah is the most merciful, most kind.
i) Will Allah forgive the Holy Prophet Mohammad (may peace be upon him), the greatest man to have ever lived?

The Suicidal Mohammad?

Image result for muhammad suicidalBukhari

Volume 9, Book 87, Number 111: 
Narrated 'Aisha:

The commencement of the Divine Inspiration to Allah's Apostle was in the form of good righteous (true) dreams in his sleep. He never had a dream but that it came true like bright day light. He used to go in seclusion (the cave of) Hira where he used to worship(Allah Alone) continuously for many (days) nights. He used to take with him the journey food for that (stay) and then come back to (his wife) Khadija to take his food like-wise again for another period to stay, till suddenly the Truth descended upon him while he was in the cave of Hira. The angel came to him in it and asked him to read. The Prophet replied, "I do not know how to read." (The Prophet added), "The angel caught me (forcefully) and pressed me so hard that I could not bear it anymore. He then released me and again asked me to read, and I replied, "I do not know how to read," whereupon he caught me again and pressed me a second time till I could not bear it anymore. He then released me and asked me again to read, but again I replied, "I do not know how to read (or, what shall I read?)." Thereupon he caught me for the third time and pressed me and then released me and said, "Read: In the Name of your Lord, Who has created (all that exists). Has created man from a clot. Read and Your Lord is Most Generous...up to..... ..that which he knew not." (96.15)


(parts before omitted because it was too long)

But after a few days Waraqa died and the Divine Inspiration was also paused for a while and the Prophet became so sad as we have heard that he intended several times to throw himself from the tops of high mountains and every time he went up the top of a mountain in order to throw himself down, Gabriel would appear before him and say, "O Muhammad! You are indeed Allah's Apostle in truth" whereupon his heart would become quiet and he would calm down and would return home. And whenever the period of the coming of the inspiration used to become long, he would do as before, but when he used to reach the top of a mountain, Gabriel would appear before him and say to him what he had said before. (Ibn 'Abbas said regarding the meaning of: 'He it is that Cleaves the daybreak (from the darkness)' (6.96) that Al-Asbah. means the light of the sun during the day and the light of the moon at night).

1) Concerning the first part - The start of Islam
a) Why would an all-knowing deity ask an illiterate man to read?
b) Why does the spirit tell us that man was created from blood clots when it's not true?
c) If this spirit "taught by the pen what men did not know," where are those words?
d) And why digress to an oral recital when written testimony is superior?
e) Why gloat, saying he's generous - in what way and to whom?
f) But the real question is: if this spirit "taught by the pen what men did not know," where are those words?

2) Why was Mohammad suicidal?
a) When someone dies, do thoughts of suicide normally overtake someone?
b) Does this preclude Mohammad from being a prophet, because no prophet before was ever suicidal?
c) How many times did Gabriel go to Mohammad to tell him he was Allah's messenger?
d) Does the fact that Gabriel had to tell Mohammad more than 1 time he was Allah's messenger mean that Gabriel was not very convincing?
e) Or that Mohammad did not believe a spirit who nearly crushed the life out of him, and asked him (an illiterate man to read)?

3) Some people allege that it was not an angel who convinced Mohammad to not commit suicide, but Satan. However, the argument to this point has been that if it was indeed Satan who met Mohammad and nearly pressed the life out of him, and then saved Mohammad from suicide, Mohammad would not have pulled through and succeeded in his mission to spread the message of God.
a) Let's examine this claim:
b) If it was an angel from God, well, insert questions from section 1 here...
c) Did Mohammad succeed in spreading the message of God?
i) What was the message?
ii) To kill infidels?
iii) To outlaw adoption so that Mohammad could marry his adopted son's wife?
(see comment 3 of http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/08/response-to-mr-himed.html)
iv) Was it to make booty (aka plunder) lawful for Mohammad? Bukhari Volume 1, Book 7, Number 331
v) By making Mohammad victorious through terror? (Bukhari Volume 1, Book 7, Number 331)
vi) That muslim women should have hairless palms? http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/08/muslim-must-have-hairless-palms-and.html
vii) Etc, etc...
viii) Is this the message of God or the message of Satan?
d) Furthermore, If Muslims believe in the Torah/Old Testament, they will find that God gave the Prophet Moses the 10 Commandments:
i) An exercise in futility - which of the 10 Commandments did Mohammad NOT break?
ii) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ten_Commandments

4) Another argument that exists is that if Prophet Muhammad was truly inspired by Satan then Satan would order him to jump and kill him self just like how he tried to do with Jesus, Mathew 4:6-7 http://www.htmlbible.com/kjv30/B40C004.htm
a) First of all, Satan was testing whether Jesus was the Son of God, to which Jesus replied Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.
b) If Satan wanted Jesus to commit suicide, it would be understandable because Jesus brought the Golden rule "Love thy neighbour as yourself"
i) Is this message compatible with Satan and evil?
c) Would Satan want Mohammad to commit suicide after all the things he brought forth to the Muslim world? (See question 3 above)

5) Why would Bukhari include this verse?
a) It;s not a very good start for any religion?
b) Was it to show that Mohammad was a fraud?

Mohammad outlaws eating donkey meat because he did not get his share of war booty

Image result for muhammad eating camel meat
Sahih Bukhari: Volume 4, Book 53, Number 383: 

Narrated Ibn Abi Aufa:
We were afflicted with hunger during the besiege of Khaibar, and when it was the day of (the battle of) Khaibar, we slaughtered the donkeys and when the pots got boiling (with their meat). Allah's Apostle made an announcement that all the pots should be upset and that nobody should eat anything of the meat of the donkeys. We thought that the Prophet prohibited that because the Khumus had not been taken out of the booty (i.e. donkeys); other people said, "He prohibited eating them for ever." The sub-narrator added, "I asked Said bin Jubair who said, 'He has made the eating of donkeys' meat illegal for ever.")

1) What is Khumus?

The “Khumus” or “Kumis” is the prophet’s share of all booty seized by Muslim

Sahih Bukhari: Volume 1, Book 10, Number 501: 
Narrated Ibn 'Abbas:
The Prophet said, " I order you to do four things and forbid you from four things. (The first four are as follows):

... 4. To give me Khumus

2) From the above Hadith, the first Muslims clearly believed that they were prevented from eating donkey meat because Mohammad because Mohammad did not get his share of war booty.
a) Does this mean that the first Muslims viewed Mohammad as a greedy pirate?
b) Does this mean that the first Muslims knew that Mohammad always had an ulterior, self-serving motive in coming up with his orders?
i) Afterall, Allah worked for Mohammad to ensure all his sexual desires were met:
http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/08/allah-works-to-make-sure-mohammads.html

3) If Mohammad was so concerned about his own motives, how does that make Muslims feel?
a) Can they trust Mohammad to intercede on their behalf?
b) See questions precent 1) a) c) http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/10/mohammad-re-gifter.html
c) Does this mean that Mohammad would have let his own followers starve before he let them have any of his war booty?
d) If Mohammad would let his immidiate followers starve to death after they fought valiabtly for him, how do you think he would treat modern Muslims if he saw them today?

4) Does Bukhari include this hadith to show that the first Muslims never believed that Mohammad cared for them?
a) Is Bukhari saying that Mohammad doesn't care about modern Muslims?
b) Is Bukhari telling Muslims to read what Mohammad did, and get an informed opinion about the "greatest prophet of all time" (may peace be upon him...)?!?!

Muslims should do the opposite of what Jews and Christians do!

Image result for Muhammad fondle Aisha
Bukhari: Volume 7, Book 72, Number 786: 

Narrated Abu Huraira :
The Prophet said, "Jews and Christians do not dye their hair so you should do the opposite of what they do. "

In this hadith, it is obvious that any Muslim who does not dye their hair is clearly an apostate to their faith. After all, Mohammad CLEARLY commanded Muslims to dye their hair.

However, if one argues that dying the hair is an example of what Christians and Jews dont do, and Muslims should do the complete opposite, does that apply to all facets of life?

For example, if Christians and Jews use logic, does this mean Muslims should not use logic? Could this be a reason why the Israelis are doing so well economically and the surrounding Muslim countries, surrounded by a plethora of natural resources are doing so poorly?

Could this be the reason why the Middle East has not come up with any new inventions, since the dawn of Islam, and that the doctrine of Islam has subjugated Middle Eastern people, once the epicenter of science and innovation, to a vapid state of mental inferiority, where its governments blame their misfortunes on anyone else but themselves?

As to why Bukhari included this hadith, once can only guess... As well, since Mohammad clearly did not know every Christian and Jew, which Christian or Jew was he talking about?

If some Christians and Jews dyed their hair, and others did not, what should Muslims do?

Did Mohammad think that dying hair was a religious thing? What purpose would that serve if it was relgious? What purpose would it serve by doing something opposite of what Christians and Jews did? Is this an implicit statement that Mohammad hated Christians and Jews, stemming from the fact they were more logical than he was, and stemming from the fact that ultimately, it was the Jews who sold Mohammad bible stories that Mohammad plagiarized in his Quran?

Ishaq:264 "Allah revealed concerning Finhas and the other rabbis: 'Allah issued orders to those who had received the Book [Torah]: 'You are to make it clear to men and not conceal it, yet they cast the Torah behind their backs and sold it for a small price. Wretched was their exchange. They will therefore receive a painful punishment.'"

Satan reciting Quran surahs?

Image result for Muhammad fondle Aisha
Bukhari Volume 6, Book 61, Number 530:

Narrated Abu Mas'ud:
The Prophet said, "If somebody recited the last two Verses of Surat Al-Baqara at night, that will be sufficient for him."
Narrated Abu Huraira: Allah 's Apostle ordered me to guard the Zakat revenue of Ramadan. Then somebody came to me and started stealing of the foodstuff. I caught him and said, "I will take you to Allah's Apostle!" Then Abu Huraira described the whole narration and said:) That person said (to me), "(Please don't take me to Allah's Apostle and I will tell you a few words by which Allah will benefit you.) When you go to your bed, recite Ayat-al-Kursi, (2.255) for then there will be a guard from Allah who will protect you all night long, and Satan will not be able to come near you till dawn." (When the Prophet heard the story) he said (to me), "He (who came to you at night) told you the truth although he is a liar; and it was Satan."
Starting at the beginning, the zakat was called "revenue," not charity. By this time there were only Muslims in Medina, so the order to guard the storehouse means the first Muslims couldn't be trusted.
1) The thief couldn't be Satan, for why would a spirit steal food?
2) Further, why would someone trust a thief or Satan to share Qur'anic insights?
a) The referenced verse (2:255) says that Allah is God and that everything belongs to him. Quoting it makes no sense if Satan is Allah's enemy.
3) But it makes perfect sense if Satan is using Allah as a disguise.
a) Yet by saying that it will protect one from Satan, it no longer makes sense.

4) But speaking of senseless, how can one who told the truth be a liar?

Mohammad's followers drinking and smearing his ablution water...

Related imageBukhari Volume 1, Book 4, Number 187: 

Narrated Abu Juhaifa:
Allah's Apostle came to us at noon and water for ablution was brought to him. After he had performed ablution, the remaining water was taken by the people and they started smearing their bodies with it (as a blessed thing). The Prophet offered two Rakat of the Zuhr prayer and then two Rakat of the 'Asr prayer while an 'Anza (spear-headed stick) was there (as a Sutra) in front of him. Abu Musa said: The Prophet asked for a tumbler containing water and washed both his hands and face in it and then threw a mouthful of water in the tumbler and said to both of us (Abu Musa and Bilal), "Drink from the tumbler and pour some of its water on your faces and chests." 

Ablution is the removal of any sexual residue, blood or excrement on a person. Here we see Mohammad's followers rubbing themselves with that water as a blessed thing, and Mohammad, who after washing his hands, and rinsing his mouth, asking his followers to drink from it. We also know that Mohammad had many semen stains, and would have to continually wash himself of those stains... http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/05/mohammad-had-lots-of-semen-on-his.html

1) Why would his followers think of smearing their bodies with his leftover ablution water find it heavenly?
a) Did they think it was a blessing?
b) How could they be blessed by his cleaned up semen stains?
c) Did Allah find Mohammad's cleaned semen or blood stains to be a blessing?
d) Should all Muslims start smearing themselves in the ablution water of Mohammad's direct descendants (syeeds) in order to be like their ancestors smearing their bodies with Mohammad's remaining ablution water and regurgitated rinsing water?
e) Were his followers that fanatical that they would do anything for Mohammad, including blowing themselves up for a chance at paradise to drink from the rivers of wine (which are illegal on earth but not haram in heaven)
i) Think about it, why are the very same vices that would take you to hell allowed in heaven? Is this an allegory of Mohammad that maybe his heaven is really a hell?

2) Why did Mohammad order his companions to drink his regurgitated water?
a) Did he think he was being prophet-like in ordering his followers to drink up the remainder of what they cleaned themselves with?
b) Did he think like he was being like other prophets?
i) For instance, Jesus washed the feet of others. John 13:1-20. The point was that Jesus was to serve his followers. Here Mohammad, who claims to be like all other prophets before him, does the complete opposite by forcing his followers to swallow what he spit out.
ii) Or, was it because he thought this was his version of the Last Supper, where Jesus broke bread in an allegorical way saying it is his body? Matthew 26: 17-46 (NOTE - Jesus did not actually have people eat his body, or drink the remnants of what he washed himself with, but broke bread as a symbolism that his blood was being spilt when he died on the cross for the sins of mankind) (whether you believe this or not is irrlevant, take the point that he did NOT make his followers actually eat drink his blood, eat his body, or drink and smear his ablution water)
iii) No, because the point of all Muslims was to be a slave to Mohammad, and obey all that he said no matter the consequences of wreaking havoc on others.

3) What next?
a) Mohammad proscribing cures of Camel Urine and flies?
b) Oh wait, he already did that:
i) http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/07/dr-mohammad-part-ii.html
ii) http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/07/dr-mohammad.html

Mohammad the witch doctor?

Image result for Muhammad fondle Aisha
Sahih Al-Bukhari: Volume 7, Book 65, Number 356:


Narrated Sad:
Allah's Apostle said, "He who eats seven 'Ajwa dates every morning, will not be affected by poison or magic on the day he eats them."

1) Did Mohammad eat these seven 'Ajwa dates when Magic was worked on Allah's Apostle so that he began to imagine that he had done something although he had not? http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/05/volume-7-book-71-number-661-narrated.html

a) Did these magic spells only apply to sexual relations with his wife?
Bukhari: Volume 8, Book 73, Number 89:
Narrated 'Aisha:
The Prophet continued for such-and-such period imagining that he has slept (had sexual relations) with his wives, and in fact he did not. One day he said, to me, "O 'Aisha! Allah has instructed me regarding a matter about which I had asked Him. There came to me two men, one of them sat near my feet and the other near my head. The one near my feet, asked the one near my head (pointing at me), 'What is wrong with this man? The latter replied, 'He is under the effect of magic.' ……

b) Or was it because Mohammad himself was Mohammad using magic spells as an excuse to about how he infact was impotent? "One day he said, to me, "O 'Aisha! Allah has instructed me regarding a matter about which I had asked Him." Bukhari: Volume 8, Book 73, Number 89
c) Why didnt the profit have any other children after Khadija, except for Ibrahim from his slave girl, Mary the Copt?

2) Do all Muslims eat seven 'Ajwa dates every morning?
3) Why didn't Mohammad eat 7 Ajwa dates as a cure for the magic curses Labad put on him?
4) How did Mohammad know about magic spells?
a) Did Mohammad dabble in the black arts?

Tabari VI:66
"A man came to the Prophet and said, 'Show me the seal which is between your shoulders, and if you lie under any enchantment [a demonic curse or spell] I will cure you, for I am the best enchanter [a witch practicing black magic] of the Arabs.' 'Do you wish me to show you a sign.' asked the Prophet. 'Yes. Summon that cluster.' So the Prophet looked at a cluster of dates hanging from a palm and summoned it, and began to snap his fingers until it stood before him. Then the man said, 'Tell it to go back.' and it went back. The enchanter said, 'I have never seen a greater magician than I have seen today.'"
b) Does this mean that the enchanter was right to call Mohammad a magician, and the Meccans were also right when they called him a demon possessed sorcerer? (038.004 YUSUFALI: So they wonder that a Warner has come to them from among themselves! and the Unbelievers say, "This is a sorcerer telling lies! "
c) Maybe Mohammad was right about Ajwa dates - he himself is a good magician!

6) Could Mohammad also pull a rabbit out of his turban?
a) Was Mohammad the first person to entertain children at birthday parties with magic tricks?
b) Does this mean that clowns at magic shows are halal?
c) Does this mean that being a sorceror is a noble profession (like the noble Quran)?
d) Does this mean that Muslims should also start celebrating Halloween as a religious holiday in commemoration of Mohammad's excellent wizardry?

The Prophet said, "Fever is from the heat of Hell, so abate fever with water."

Image result for Muhammad fondle Aisha

Sahih Bukhari 7:71:621
The Prophet said, "Fever is from the heat of Hell, so abate fever with water."

See also:Sahih Bukhari 7:71:619Sahih Bukhari 7:71:620Sahih Bukhari 7:71:622

Once again, Mohammad never ceases to amaze the world of modern science. After all, it is Allah who ensured the predestination of everyone's actions and sayings - as such, it was Allah, who made sure to give his first and final prophet the ability to come up with such wisdom.

However, what is sad is that Mohammad could have been believed in 7th century Arabia only because their was no ready access to water, and for desert dwellers, water was probably worth its in weight in oil.

But, to have Muslims pass off that every word Mohammad spoke as being divine inspiration, timeless, eternal and wise is utterly negligent bordering reckless.

If that is the case, every Muslim should cure their fever with water. Otherwise, they would be doing Mohammad a disservice by proving him wrong.

Prophet Muhammad said Muslim Women are deficient in intelligence and religion!

Image result for Muhammad fondle Aisha
Volume 1, Book 6, Number 301:

Narrated Abu Said Al-Khudri:

Once Allah's Apostle went out to the Musalla (to offer the prayer) o 'Id-al-Adha or Al-Fitr prayer. Then he passed by the women and said, "O women! Give alms, as I have seen that the majority of the dwellers of Hell-fire were you (women)." They asked, "Why is it so, O Allah's Apostle ?" He replied, "You curse frequently and are ungrateful to your husbands. I have not seen anyone more deficient in intelligence and religion than you. A cautious sensible man could be led astray by some of you." The women asked, "O Allah's Apostle! What is deficient in our intelligence and religion?" He said, "Is not the evidence of two women equal to the witness of one man?" They replied in the affirmative. He said, "This is the deficiency in her intelligence. Isn't it true that a woman can neither pray nor fast during her menses?" The women replied in the affirmative. He said, "This is the deficiency in her religion." 

Deficiency in Intelligence:

The above passage states that women are deficient in intelligence because the evidence of two women are equal to one man. The reason for this statement is that during one of Mohammad's so-called divine revelations, Allah told Mohammad that the evidence of two women equal to the witness of one man. Allah's reasoning is that women are mentaly deficient compared to men.

Quran 002.282YUSUFALI: O ye who believe! When ye deal with each other, in transactions involving future obligations in a fixed period of time, reduce them to writing Let a scribe write down faithfully as between the parties: let not the scribe refuse to write: as Allah Has taught him, so let him write. Let him who incurs the liability dictate, but let him fear His Lord Allah, and not diminish aught of what he owes. If they party liable is mentally deficient, or weak, or unable Himself to dictate, Let his guardian dictate faithfully, and get two witnesses, out of your own men, and if there are not two men, then a man and two women, such as ye choose, for witnesses, so that if one of them errs, the other can remind her.

1) Mohammad created the above rule - Women are not intellectually inferior according to the torah or bible.
a) Is Mohammad's reasoning tautological? (He created the rule that women are intellectually inferior, and uses that rule to prove women are intellectually inferior?b) Could Mohammad have been right with those women considering how easily they accepted Mohammad's word?
i) Or did those women superficially accept Mohammad's assertions considering that Allah made Mohammad succeed through terror, Mohammad ordered the assassination of many people who stood up against him, and committed genocide against the Qurayza Jews of Yathrub (present day Medina)?
2) Does that mean Pakistan had a mentally deficient president in Benezir Bhutto for many years, as opposed to other countries?
a) How do Pakistanis feel that they had elected someone that was deficient in intelligence?
b) Does this mean that Pakistani males were so deficient in intelligence (less than half a man's) that they needed to elect a woman whose intelligence is half that of a normal man?
3) How do modern day Muslim women feel knowing they have only have the intelligence of a man's?
a) Or are Muslim women too dumb to realize the connotations of the above, proving Mohammad right that Muslim women are truly deficient in intelligence?

Deficiency in Religion:

The above passage states that women are deficient in religion because women "can neither pray nor fast during her menses"

1) Does this mean that Mohammad's entire religion is one based on bodily actions?
2) Does this mean that following Mohammad's religion is about prayer and fasting as opposed to any relationship with God?
3) How can a woman be deficient in religion when it was Mohammad who created the rules of his religion, and woman are forced to obey?
a) Does this mean that Mohammad created rules that purposely hinder women from his religion?
b) Did Mohammad dislike women?
c) Did Mohammad view women as merely sex toys, seeing how he had over 9 wives and countless concubines?
4) How would modern day Muslims feel if Mohammad was still alive and wanted their hand in marriage (or that of their daughters'? (Especially considering his womanizing, and love of making love):

Bukhari, Book 008, Number 3450:
Anas (Allah be pleased with him) reported that Allah's Apostle (may peace be upon him) had nine wives. They (all the wives) used to gather every night in the house of one where he had to come (and stay that night).

Mohammad enjoyed touching Aisha during prayer


Image result for Muhammad fondle AishaVolume 2, Book 22, Number 300:

Narrated Aisha:
I used to stretch my legs towards the Qibla of the Prophet while he was praying; whenever he prostrated he touched me, and I would withdraw my legs, and whenever he stood up, I would restretch my legs.

When prostrating, a person bends down on his knees, and stretches his arms out in front of them.

1) Why did Mohammad reach out to touch Aisha?
a) Was he trying to reach out and touch someone?
b) Or was he trying to touch his child bride, the one where he would get the divine inspiration from while he was making love to her? http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/04/mohammed-would-get-divine-inspiration.html

2) Why did Aisha feel the need to put her legs in front of Mohammad as he prayed?
a) Did the mother of all Muslims like to interrupt her husband?
b) Why couldnt she look for another place to stretch out her legs?
c) Was she seeking the prophet's love and affection?
d) Was she resorting to one of her tactics induced by jealousy of Mohammad's womanizing ways? http://muslimhadith.blogspot.com/2008/06/aisha-jealous-of-mohammed-womanizer.html

3) Why did Bukhari include this hadith?
a) Was it to provide an example for male Muslims to look to touch the legs of their wives while praying?
i) Is this consistent with Allah who promises 70 virgins in heaven for martyrs?
ii) As such, is Bukhari trying to hammer home the point that sexual touching during prayer is only fitting for Muslims?
b) Or was Bukhari providing an example for wives to stretch their legs out like the mother of all Muslims to bother their husbands during prostration?

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