Moses and the Injil: Why Does the Qur'an Speak of a Book That Did Not Yet Exist?

Moses and the Injil: Why Does the Qur'an Speak of a Book That Did Not Yet Exist?

A Theological Challenge to the Qur'an's Historical Reliability

By Dr. Maxwell Shimba

Shimba Theological Institute

Introduction

One of the fundamental principles of divine revelation is that God speaks truthfully and consistently within history. An all-knowing God does not confuse historical chronology, nor does He refer people to a book that has not yet been revealed. This raises one of the most significant questions concerning the Qur'an.

In the Qur'an, the Injil (Gospel) is consistently presented as the revelation given to Jesus Christ. Yet in Surah 7, during the lifetime of Moses—approximately fourteen centuries before the birth of Jesus—Allah speaks about people finding Muhammad mentioned in both the Torah and the Injil.

This creates an unavoidable chronological question.

Was the Injil already in existence during the days of Moses?

If not, why would Allah refer Moses to a book that had not yet been revealed?

The Qur'anic Passage

"Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered Prophet, whom they find written in the Torah and the Gospel..."

Qur'an 7:157

The surrounding verses make it clear that Allah is speaking directly after Moses' prayer.

Qur'an 7:155–157

According to the narrative, Moses receives Allah's response immediately after pleading for Israel.

Yet Allah suddenly speaks about people finding Muhammad written in the Gospel.

The Historical Timeline

The chronological order is straightforward.

• Moses lived approximately 1400 years before Jesus Christ.

• Jesus had not yet been born.

• The Injil had not yet been given.

• The disciples did not yet exist.

• Christianity did not yet exist.

Therefore, the obvious question becomes:

How could anyone during Moses' lifetime consult the Injil when the Injil had not yet been revealed?

Questions That Demand Answers

Question 1

If the Injil was revealed only to Jesus,

how could Moses or the Israelites know what was written inside it fourteen centuries earlier?

Question 2

If Allah is omniscient,

why would He refer Moses to a future book as though it already existed?

Question 3

Why would Allah say people "find" Muhammad in the Injil when no Injil had yet been written?

Question 4

Can people read what does not yet exist?

Question 5

Can a future revelation serve as evidence for people living fourteen centuries before it?

Question 6

If the Injil did not yet exist,

what exactly were people supposed to search?

Question 7

Did Moses possess a copy of the Injil?

If yes, where is the evidence?

If no, why mention it?

Question 8

Did Allah confuse future revelation with present history?

Question 9

If Allah exists outside time, does that justify speaking to human beings as though future books were already available?

If so,

why does the Qur'an repeatedly distinguish between the Torah, Psalms, Gospel, and Qur'an as revelations given at different moments in history?

Question 10

Why does the Qur'an elsewhere clearly state that the Injil was given to Jesus?

For example:

"And We sent, following in their footsteps, Jesus the son of Mary, confirming what came before him in the Torah, and We gave him the Gospel..."

Qur'an 5:46

This verse clearly teaches:

• Torah first.

• Jesus later.

• Gospel afterward.

If this is true,

how can the Gospel already function in the days of Moses?

A Comparison with the Bible

The Bible never claims that Moses possessed the New Testament.

Likewise,

the prophets before Christ looked forward to the coming Messiah through prophecy—not through reading the Gospels.

The New Testament was written after the earthly ministry of Jesus.

The chronology remains internally consistent.

The Central Debate

Muslim scholars often argue that Allah was speaking prophetically about future generations who would eventually read both the Torah and the Gospel.

However, this explanation raises further questions.

Why is the response addressed within Moses' historical context?

Why mention both books together without distinguishing that one had not yet been revealed?

Why not simply say:

"In the future they will find him written in the Gospel that will later be revealed to Jesus."

Instead, the passage reads as though both Scriptures are already known.

The Logical Dilemma

If the Injil already existed,

then Jesus was unnecessary as its recipient.

If the Injil did not exist,

then Allah referred to a non-existent book as though it were available.

Which explanation best fits the text?

The Reliability Question

This passage invites readers to examine whether the Qur'an consistently reflects historical chronology.

A revelation claiming divine origin should not create ambiguity about the sequence of events it describes.

If a text appears to place the Injil within the lifetime of Moses while elsewhere stating that it was given to Jesus centuries later, readers naturally ask whether this reflects prophetic language, literary compression, or a historical inconsistency.

Final Questions

Can a perfect revelation contain chronological statements that appear to place future Scriptures into past history?

Can an all-knowing God speak in a way that leaves readers with the impression that the Gospel already existed during Moses' lifetime?

If the Qur'an is the flawless word of God,

why does this passage generate such a significant chronological challenge?

These are questions every sincere seeker of truth should examine carefully by comparing the Qur'an with the historical record and the biblical timeline.

This version presents the issue as a series of theological and historical questions for debate while avoiding conclusions that go beyond what the cited text itself establishes. Readers can evaluate the chronology by comparing Qur'an 7:155–157 with Qur'an 5:46 and the historical timeline of Moses and Jesus.